Apparently, with the legal pressure provided by pro-homosexual lobbies, there is a threat that churches will be liable to lawsuits for anti-homosexual practices unless our position on the issue is clearly stated in religious terms.
The recommendation is that we amend our statement of faith to describe our core convictions in this matter. Therefore, I’m putting here what I’m preparing to present to our church leadership on the matter. Your comments will be helpful.
Human Sexuality
God created humans to be sexual beings. God created marriage to provide for and protect that sexuality. Human sexuality is to be expressed only within the context of heterosexual marriage.
Marriage. Christian marriage is a sacred institution ordained of God for the happiness of mankind and the propagation of the race. It is a spiritual and physical union into which one man and one woman may enter for the glory of God and, according to the scriptural ideal, is to be broken only by death. This notion, that marriage is a man and a woman united for life, is the only definition of marriage recognized in the Bible. It is not open to societal or legal reinterpretation.
Sexual Orientation. Scripture teaches that all people are tempted by their own desires and therefore sexual orientation refers to a person’s predominant form of sexual desire and temptation. These desires, though real, are not irresistible. God offers strength to overcome temptation and power to reshape desires. Finally, all sexual behavior, regardless of orientation, is sinful if not found within the context of biblical marriage.
(Genesis 1:26-28; Genesis 2:18-25; Genesis 3:1ff; Matthew 19:4-6; Mark 10:4-9; Ephesians 5:25-33; Romans 7:2; 1 Corinthians 7:2-3, 10-16; 1 Timothy 3:2, 12; Leviticus 18:21-23; 20:13; Romans 1:18-32; 1 Corinthians 6:8-11; 1 Timothy 1: 9-10; Matthew 15:19; Mark 7:21; Acts 15:20, 29; Galatians 5:19-21; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Hebrews 13:4).
Jeff: I agree with everything you said here except one point. While Paul made it clear in 1 Cor. 7:2 that marriage is preferably between one man and one woman, the Bible makes allowance for a man to have multiple wives. Such a man, however, may not serve as elder/overseers or deacon in the church per 1 Tim. 3:2 (elders) and 3:12 (deacons). This would indicate that there were men in the church who had multiple wives.
Well-meaning missionaries to countries that practice polygamy have demanded that polygamous men who wish to enter the church must put away all but one of their wives. Where does this leave the wives put away and their children? They are without support and often turn to prostitution. Never did the Bible demand that wives be put away like this in order to walk rightly with God.
All that said, the laws of our country are for monogamy which, then, any church should uphold in submission to the governing authorities. So, I guess that in this country the point is moot. The problem with saying the Bible demands monogamy is that there are so many examples in the Bible which God does not condemn that contradict this statement. So, to say that marriage “is a spiritual and physical union into which one man and one woman may enter” as the only Biblically acceptable model of marriage is not entirely accurate.
The bottom line is that the Bible does not in fact demand monogamy as the only way of righteousness or the only type of marriage it recognizes, but it does recommend it as strongly preferable. It does, however, make clear, as you have said, that homosexuality or any sexual activity outside of heterosexual marriage is sin. Well stated on those points!
Rob
Hi Rob. Thanks for writing such a well thought-out comment. I actually agree with your interpretation of the relevant passages, and I would agree that the “well-meaning” missionaries who forced divorce on polygamous families were sadly mistaken.
If you see this reply of mine, I invite you to reread the second paragraph of the statement above and notice that marriage defined as one man and one woman does not preclude a man having more than one marriage as in the case of Jacob or King David. Polygamy was practised in the Bible even though God never seems to endorse it as a desirable state of affairs, but I think it’s still important to recognize that polygamy doesn’t represent one marriage covenant with multiple parties but rather multiple covenants each with only two parties.
I think the point is moot in the context of American law, but I do believe the definition above does allow for polygamy as practiced in the Bible.
Regardless, thanks for your insightful comment!